Questions and Replies

Reply:

(1)    The strategic documents approved by Cabinet on 6 May 2026 are being prepared for formal publication by the Executive arm of government and tabling in Parliament. Engagements are also planned with the full complement of key stakeholders, central to which is the legislative arm of government. A suitable platform is also sought to discuss matters of defence and national security, both of w ich are sacred in any nation state around the globe.

(2)    Formal scheduling of the engagement on the mechanisms to defend and protect the Republic of South Africa and its people using a selected set of defence concepts and capability profiles systematically realised over time, as well as the level of ambition contemplated, will be concluded with Parliament and realised in the immediate future. Cognisance must be taken of the mandatory processes that a state department needs to subject itself in order to formalise documents and interface with the legislative authority

(3)    The SANDF Force Evolution Strategy and Plan Concept gives a clear account of the level of sustainable funding required as a percentage of both the Gross Domestic Product and Government Expenditure. It also stipulates a set of desired outcomes (return on investment) for each milestone and each year within a milestone, the implementation of which will surely be
 

canvassed by competent government structures that are tailor made by law for the appropriation of budgets to state departments. The aforesaid documents posit innovative ideas on the funding of the military instrument of national power.

(4)    The Minister has submitted a letter to the JSCD advising that this matter will be addressed in the third quarter, once Parliament reconvenes after the winter recess..
 

Reply:

(a)    (i)(ii). While there are no official policies requiring self-funding, individual members occasionally choose to purchase some alternative commercial tactical equipment for personal comfort or preferences, which does not reflect an official mandate. The Department of Defence (DoD) maintains rigorous military standards regarding uniform compliance.

(b)    The DoD's procurement processes are strictly governed by the Public Finance Management Act (PFMA) to ensure transparency and prevent irregular expenditure Navigating these stringe.1t la al frameworks can inherently lengthen procurement timelines, which is a reflection of legislative compliance rather than
structural failure.

(c).    Discussions with National Treasury continues with emphasis on "soldier first". In the past financial year there was reprioritisation to alleviate the situation regarding camping equipment though still by are very inadequate. The DoD remains fully committed to its constitutional mandate to fully equip and support all members of the SA National Defence Force 'S.A.NDF) entirely at state expense. Explicit internal directives have been reissued to all base and unit commanders :o ensure that no member is under the impression that self-procurement i required, reinforcing that the state remains the sole authorized provider of all operational kit.

Reply:

1.    Currently, the OMV has provided medical access to 18230 eligible military veterans. Approved military veterans receive their healthcare through South African Military Health Service (SAMHS) facilities or referrals by SAMHS to their designated service partners. Upon of receipt of services, SA1 ,1HS submits invoices of services rendered to the OMV for payment in line with the 000/SAMHS and OMV MOU.To increase National foot print for access to the healthcare facilities and services nearer to military veterans communities, the OMV is in engagements with the Department of Health(DoH), to explore possibilities of creating a special dispensation for military veterans as is the case with the elderly and persons living with disabilities, while awaiting the implementation of the National Health Insurance.

The Department has two matters before court in relation to Military Veterans Health care and Wellness.

a.    It is on provisioning of Health care to Military Veterans -Zeal Innovations [ matter finalised on 271n May 2026 - Constitutional Court. ]

b.    It is on Compensation - The Minister of Defence and Others II Petse Mangaliso, Case No: 2016/1339 [ ongoing]

2.    The number of pending healthcare medical benefit applications currently in the Department of Military Veterans healthcare unit are 88. These applications are currently processed for isation.
 

Reply:

(1)    - (2) Whilst there is no question regarding funding misailignment to the mandate, Cabinet does recognize this reality and has therefore approved a strategic document  (the  Force  Evolution  Strategy  -  "the  Journey  to Greatness") build into m ·!tiple NITDP periods of up to 30 years. The strategy seeks to increase Defence Funding up to 1.5% of the GDP. Tnis will ensure a sustainable and combat ready Defence Force
 

Reply:

(1)    The Chief of the SA National Defence Force (CSANDF), General Rudzani Maphwanya is currently serving in terms of the extension of the term of office as promulgated by means of the Presidential minutes no 89/2026 dated 29 April 2026.

(2)    Gen R. Maphwanya was appointed for the term of office for a period 01 June 2021 to 31 May 2026 in terms of section 202(1) of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, read with Sections 4A and 13(1) of the Defence Act, 2002 (Act No. 42 of 2002), subsequently his term of office was extended from 01 June 2026 to 31 May 2028 and promulgated by means of the Presidential minutes no 89/2026 dated 29 April 2026.

(3)    ·the Presidential minutes no 89/2026 dated 29 April 2026 can be provided.
 

Reply:

1.    The Director Technology Development (DTD) did not state that the CSIR would close its aeronautical facilities; no official notification to that effect has been received.

2.    Mitigation measures to sustain critical sovereign technology capabilities and retain scarce specialist skills within prevailing funding constraints include:

a.    Prioritisation of core and sovereign technology domains;

i.    Retention of critical specialist personnel in strategically important capability areas;

ii.    Utirsation of alternative and project-based funding sources where feasible,

iii.    Co . boration and resource-sharing between DERls;

iv.    Cooperation witn the South African defence industry, academic institutions and other government stakeholders for knowledge transfer and capabi!i y sustainment;

v.    Leverag·ng dual-use technologies and innovation initiatives supporting both defence and broader national technological  objectives;

vi.    Presenta ion of risks and mitigation actions at the Defence Research and Development Board (Chief Defence Materiel level) Armament Acquisition Steering Board (Secretary for Defence Level) and Armament Acquisition Council J Council on Defence (MOD&MV Level).

The time and cost reouired to re-establish sovereign flight test and associated aerospace research capabilities, snould they be lost, cannot presently be quantified with precision
 

Reply:

(1) a. The availability of SAAF capabilities cannot be discussed or stated in open documents.
b.    17 Squadron has never closed for a month due to lack of diesel.

C.    i.    Pilots were never sent home as there are Oryx helicopters currently operational.

ii.    The available Oryx helicopters will be supported by the Light Utility        Helicopters for the air mobility disaster relief and border safeguarding.
 

Reply:

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Reply:

The 2015 Defence Review classifies Denel as national security asset, with the primary purpose of designing, developing, manufacturing and supporting defence materiel. Denel 1s positioned as a full··Spectrum national defence manufacturer/Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) and a level 5 integrator of complex systems in collaboration with the local industry.

The Defence Review designates the operating divisions of Denel as sovereign or strategic. Within the Landward division, Denel is a manufacturer of combat turrets, artillery and armoured vehicle systems, small and medium calibre ammunition, brass products, detonics, power cartridges and 'mirnng drill bits. Denel Dynamics division is the manufacturer and integrator of missile systems, stand-off weapons and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) systems. The Aerospace division focuses on maintenance, repair and overhaul (MRO) of aircraft, avionics upgr2des, testing of air defence systems and complex system integration. It is also the OEM of the Rooivalk combat helicopter and the Oryx helicopter.

Dene! is a commercially driven State-Owned Company providing products and solutions loc to selected clients in global Markets.

Reply:

(1)    There are currently 3 828 SANDF vehicles of all classifications located at military facilities in Wallmannsthal.

(2)    (a-d) A total of 279 vehicles have been out of operation for a period between five and ten years.

(3)    (a) The estimated value of 111 vehicles currently listed with ARMSCOR Defence Disposal Solutions for marketing and sale amounts to R27 060 849.00.(b) The vehicles remain unused primarily because they have been declared unserviceable. Also, a number of vehicles were severely damaged during the 2021 fire incident and have subsequently been approved for disposal which takes place in phases and in accordance with disposal schedules.

(4)    The Department has conducted assessments of the affected vehicles. Following technical inspections and condition assessments, vehicles determined to be Beyond Economical Repair were subjected to formal condition changes and presented to the Asset Alienation Committee. The Committee approved their disposal through ARMSCOR's Defence Disposal Solutions marketing and sales processes.

(5)(a) The Department continues to implement technical maintenance, repair, recovery and asset management initiatives to prevent the accumulation of unserviceable and derelict vehicles.
 

Reply:

(1)- (4) Matter require a closed session.

(5)  The contracting model used by Armscor ro contract Dene! Aeronautics is reviewed on a continuous b2sis for effectiveness. ln satisfying the requirements from the Department of Defence (DOD), Denel Aeronautics provide Product Supply Support (PSS) services as well as Capital Acquisition Projects i.e. the procurement of new equipment or upgrades of current equipment.
Armscor and Dene! have establtsned a Steering Committee that convenes on a regular basis, where Denel Aeronautics is also represented. The purpose of the Steering Committee is to support Dene! as a strategic facility providing services to the DOD and to perform an oversight function on the execution of various contracts and orders placed on Denel

The contracting model ·s primarily aimed at meeting the SAAFs requirement as well as for the susta'nment of Dene! Aeronautics and its capabilities to support the abovementioned aircraft. The orders placed by Armscor on Dene! Aeronautics typically include a Fixed Cost element, to ensure that technical personnel are sustained and are available to support t e aircraft systems. The orders also provide for an On­ Demand element in respect of unscheduled maintenance, spares and requirements that may arise. These elements are costed against man-hour tariffs which are agreed between Dene! Aeronautics and Armscor and further aligns to the sustainment of Denel Aeronautics.
 

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Reply:

(1 - 4) Applications forms submitted in Limpopo during the National Armed Forces Day activities in February are currently with the Chief Directorate Human Resource Management (Directorate Human Resource Acquisitions).

It Noted that the process of Selection did not start as yet.
 

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Reply:

(1)    a.    i.The challenges experienced with the supply of Jet A-1 fuel were primarily due to continuous fuel price increases, which had a direct impact on the delivery and availability of fuel.
ii.    No South African Air Force aircraft were grounded due to shortages    16
of critical spares.
b.    i.    The National Treasury RT70 contract is utilized for the procurement of aviation fuel. Due to constant global oil price fluctuations, fuel prices are adjusted constantly by National Treasury increasing lead times Jn the deli 1ery of fuel. All aircraft spares acquisitioning is conducted utilizing contracts established via ARMSCOR.

ii.    There were no contract lapses.

(2)    a.    The South African Air Force is not in a position to divulge names.

•b.    There were no mission cancellations as a result of fuel shortages. Fuel stocks are strategically reallocated between operational bases when required to accommodate and comply with all operational requirements.

c.    The SAAF's budget allocation has been cut over the past years. However, the SAAF has done its best to keep the aircraft flying with minimal resources.

(3)    In doing Government work, there is always the "unforeseen" and the "unavoidable"
/.tasks that cannot be ignored.

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Reply:

(1)

I refer to my reply to Question 5666 on 24 October 2025. The Internal Audit Unit’s Forensic Investigations Unit has since concluded its investigation and made the following findings and recommendations:

(i) that the matter be closed on the Department’s Fraud Allegations Register, as the evidence obtained did not warrant referral for further forensic investigation; and

(ii) that outstanding payments in respect of both matters be settled without further delay, given the reputational risk to the Department of continued non-payment.

(2)

(a) The South African Pavilion at the Venice Biennale is currently being used for educational purposes by the Venice Biennale Foundation, following South Africa’s non-participation in the 61st edition this year. The Department will engage the South African Embassy in Italy on strategies to make future use of the pavilion for South African artists to promote the creative sector. As the Department does not currently hold a dedicated budget line for utilising the Biennale pavilion, fundraising initiatives will need to be pursued to ensure South African creatives continue to have access to this and similar international platforms.

(b) I took the decision to withdraw from exhibiting at the Biennale after concerns were raised that South Africa’s national platform risked being used to advance a geopolitical position not properly tested through the Department’s own selection process. That decision was subsequently challenged in the Gauteng High Court. On 18 February 2026, the Court dismissed the application brought against the Department, finding that the matter concerned a private contractual arrangement between the Department and an implementing partner, Art Periodic, and did not confer standing on the applicants to challenge the Department’s conduct directly. I am satisfied that the Department acted within its lawful authority, and my Department will apply clearer criteria in future selection processes to ensure both artistic independence and the promotion of the Republic are properly balanced from the outset.

(3)

Following investigation, the Public Protector found no evidence that members of the National Arts Council (NAC) Council, or entities associated with them, unduly benefited from the Presidential Employment Stimulus Programme funding. The investigation also concluded that there had been no contravention of section 4(10) of the NAC Act, or any other provision of the NAC Act or the applicable NAC Regulations.

Reply:

The Parliamentary Question does not specify the nature of the delays referred to; accordingly, the response is framed broadly in relation to general National Health Laboratory Service (NHLS) service delivery delays and operational pressures.

a. There are currently no delays in NHLS diagnostic laboratory services. The previous backlog in anatomical pathology has been cleared

b. (i) The interventions implemented by the NHLS and the Department to address the backlog in anatomical pathology include the following:

1. Prioritisation of urgent referred specimens, extension of working hours, and optimisation of workflows in laboratories experiencing delays in specialised testing;
2. Continued outsourcing of specialised anatomical pathology/histopathology services as a continuity measure, while internal capacity is being strengthened;
3. Submission of proposals to increase the training pipeline through the addition of 18 anatomical pathology registrar posts and 7 clinical pathology registrar posts.

(ii) Private pathology laboratories have been engaged in these interventions where the NHLS required continuity support for specialised pathology services or backlog relief. The service providers reflected in NHLS deviation records include Ampath, PathCare, and Lancet Laboratories. Furthermore, the NHLS Annual Report confirms that the outsourcing of histopathology/anatomical pathology services to private laboratories continued during the reporting period as a mitigation measure in response to specialist workforce shortages and turnaround time risks.

c. (i) Although every effort is being made to reduce reliance on private service providers and to strengthen internal NHLS capacity, outsourcing remains necessary in the short to medium term as an interim continuity measure while structural internal challenges are addressed. These challenges include specialist workforce shortages, backlogs in anatomical pathology, procurement delays, ageing equipment, and unsuccessful tender processes to establish a compliant long-term panel of service providers. Internal capacity-building measures, including the expansion of registrar posts, equipment replacement, the implementation of digital pathology, and procurement reform, are currently underway. However, these interventions require time before they can fully absorb existing service demand.

The NHLS has indicated that outsourcing is not a strategic preference, but rather a stop-gap mechanism to prevent service disruption and to safeguard patient care while internal capability is being rebuilt. The organisation further notes that it aims to reduce reliance on outsourcing over time through insourcing, expansion of the training pipeline, recapitalisation of equipment, and strengthened procurement and governance systems.

(ii) (aa) National cost and time frames: Total expenditure on external pathology testing amounted to R185,943,444.45 for the period 01 April 2024 to 31 March 2025, and R158,466,264.83 for the period 01 April 2025 to 30 November 2025. For the latter period, supplier-level expenditure reflected in the records was as follows: Lancet Laboratories – R119,593,069.87; Ampath – R22,562,233.13; and PathCare – R28,584.60.

(bb) Provincial/regional cost and time frames: The current NHLS enterprise records support national supplier payment totals and regional approximations for histopathology/anatomical pathology outsourcing; however, they do not yet provide a single, fully standardised province-by-province supplier ledger within one consolidated source document.

The available records indicate that, during the 2025/26 reporting period, outsourcing expenditure was highest in KwaZulu-Natal (approximately R69 million), followed by the Eastern Cape (approximately R34 million), Gauteng (approximately R31 million), and the Free State/North West region (approximately R27 million). Lower levels of expenditure were recorded in Limpopo/Mpumalanga and the Western/Northern Cape regions.

END.

Reply:

1. Lenacapavir is a long-acting injectable HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis medicine. It is used by people who are HIV-negative to reduce their risk of acquiring HIV. The initiation consists of two subcutaneous (fatty layer under the skin) injections given into the abdomen or upper buttock, together with two tablets taken on both the first and second days of initiation. Thereafter, the continuation dose consists of two subcutaneous injections administered every 26 weeks, which is approximately every six months.
2. Lenacapavir works by blocking the HIV capsid (outer shell of the virus), a key structure that HIV needs to enter human cells, replicate, and establish infection. When present in the body at adequate levels, lenacapavir interferes with the HIV life cycle and prevents HIV from establishing infection after exposure. It is used for prevention in people who are HIV-negative. Lenacapavir, when injected into the subcutaneous layer under the skin it forms a depot from which the drug is slowly released over a period of six months.
3. Lenacapavir can be taken by any person who is HIV negative, weighing 35kg or more, with an HIV negative test result, with no signs of an acute HIV infection.

Due to the limited doses available at present, the following population groups are prioritised:

• Adolescent girls and young women
• Pregnant and breastfeeding individuals
• Persons engaging in sex work
• Gay, bisexual and other men who have sex with men
• Transgender individuals
• People who inject drugs

(d)-(e) Lenacapavir was shown to be highly effective at preventing HIV in two large Phase III clinical trials, PURPOSE 1 and PURPOSE 2. 

The PURPOSE 1 trial found 100% efficacy in preventing HIV in 5,300 cisgender women in Uganda and South Africa, and the PURPOSE 2 trial showed a 96% reduction in HIV incidence among cisgender men, trans, and non-binary individuals across multiple countries. Both trials demonstrated LEN’s safety and effectiveness in reducing HIV transmission.

(f) Due to the limited number of doses available during this early stage, the Department of Health has adopted a phased rollout approach for lenacapavir. Phase 1 introduces lenacapavir through 360 public primary health care facilities located in selected high-HIV-incidence districts and priority provinces. These districts were identified based on HIV incidence, population coverage, service readiness and the potential to achieve the greatest public health impact.

The phased approach is designed to ensure that available doses are used strategically to reach the populations and communities with the greatest HIV prevention needs. The rollout includes facilities serving urban, peri-urban and rural communities, with access provided through the public PHC platform and linked community-based services. This enables lenacapavir to be integrated into routine HIV prevention services while also reaching the following priority populations across both urban and rural communities where the intervention can contribute most meaningfully to reducing new HIV infections.

Due to the limited doses available at present, the following population groups are prioritised:

• Adolescent girls and young women
• Pregnant and breastfeeding individuals
• Persons engaging in sex work
• Gay, bisexual and other men who have sex with men
• Transgender individuals

(g) The Department has put in place a comprehensive system to track uptake, the safety, accessibility and long-term impact of lenacapavir as part of the national HIV prevention programme.

Health care workers across the 360 Phase 1 implementation facilities have been trained on the national lenacapavir implementation guidelines, standard operating procedures, counselling tools, HIV testing requirements, clinical follow-up, adverse event recognition and reporting, and the use of routine monitoring systems, including the SyNCH PrEP module.

All clients receiving lenacapavir are monitored longitudinally through the SyNCH PrEP module, which records HIV status, follow-up attendance, continuation, discontinuation, restart, transfer and adverse events over time. Safety monitoring includes the identification, clinical management and reporting of side effects, including injection-site reactions and other adverse events, in line with national pharmacovigilance requirements. Adverse events are reported through the appropriate SAHPRA reporting processes to support ongoing safety surveillance and regulatory oversight.

(h) Since 5 June 2026, 15,744 patients were initiated on Lenacapavir as of 2 July 2026 (inclusive)

(i) The Department’s timeline to expand lenacapavir access to reach 1 to 2 million people annually is dependent on the availability of sufficient, affordable and cost-effective supply, including the registration and availability of generic formulations of lenacapavir.

The anticipated timeframe for the registration of generic lenacapavir is approximately six to nine months from the date of submission to SAHPRA. Following registration, securing supply could take a further period of approximately six months. On this basis, the Department anticipates that generic formulations of lenacapavir could become available by mid-2027, subject to timely regulatory submission, approval, procurement processes and confirmed product supply.

END.

Reply:

1. The National Department of Health does not currently monitor the implementation of the multi-sectoral First 1000 Days programme in the Western Cape Province. However, the province’s health and nutrition outcomes for mothers and young children during the First 1000 Days are monitored as part of routine monitoring across the country.

a) The Department of Health provides a comprehensive and integrated package of maternal and child health services focused on prevention, treatment, and development. These services are outlined in the Road to Health booklet and implemented through the Side-by-Side Campaign. This is a campaign for pregnant women and caregivers of children younger than 5 years which uses multiple communication channels. The package include activities and services provided through linkages with other sectors and departments.

All provinces engage with other departments and partners in order to ensure that children have access to services provided by other departments including nutritional support, birth registration, child support grants and early learning programmes. However, in general these are not provided as a single province-wide programme that focuses on the First 1000 Days.

b) The National Department of Health primarily use the District Health Information System (DHIS) to generate timely, evidence-based maternal and child health data. Performance dashboards support monitoring and targeted action to improve maternal and child health outcomes. Quarterly national review meetings strengthen accountability, coordination, and alignment of priorities. Facility visits provide supportive supervision and enhance quality of care at service delivery points.

2. (a) (i) Maternal and child health programmes implemented by the Department of Health have made significant progress in improving maternal and child survival with a focus on the first 1,000 days of life.

ii) Whilst health services collaborate with other departments at local level, most provinces have not implemented province-wide comprehensive programme focussed on the First 1000 Days.

3. National Maternal, Child and Women’s programme review meetings serve as a key platform for the exchange of best practices within the health sector across provinces with four such meetings being held during the FY2025/26.

The Department participates in the Inter-departmental Early Childhood Development (ECD) Committee which is coordinated by the Department of Basic Education and brings departments and other stakeholders together to ensure a multi-sectoral approach. The inter-departmental committee together with the Inter-Ministerial Committee on ECD provide mechanisms for sharing of good practice.

END.

Reply:

1. (a) In terms of the Guidelines for Chronic Renal Dialysis, before a patient is accepted onto a chronic dialysis programme, a comprehensive assessment is undertaken to determine the patient’s suitability for long-term dialysis as long term dialysis has significant implications for both the patient, their family and the health system. The assessment includes consideration of the patient’s medical condition and amongst other, the following factors are evaluated before prioritising a patient for renal dialysis services:

• Medical condition of the patient, if there are any irreversible progressive diseases of the vital organs, such as cardiac, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, lung disease, unresponsive infections, advanced liver cirrhosis, and active uncontrollable malignancy
• Any form of mental illness that diminishes the capacity of the patient to take full responsibility for their actions.
• Active substance abuse or dependency including tobacco use.
• A patient with a proven history of habitual non-compliance with renal dialysis treatment.
• Body mass index or Obesity.
• Age is not a contraindication for renal dialysis services provided the above factors are absent.

(b) The guidelines were introduced in 2009.

2. (a) and (b)

The guidelines are currently being reviewed with the aim to have the revision approved by March 2027.

END.

Reply:

There has not been any investigation instituted however, in responding this parliamentary question, I sought information on the case of Mr Keanu Friskin from Livingston Hospital and the Eastern Cape Department of Health. Once I have all the details, I will give a detailed response.

END.

Reply:

a. (i) The South African Medical Research Council (SAMRC) has secured funding to support research groups in the country that were adversely affected by the funding withdrawals. This support included numerous private donations, matched by a commitment of R400 million from the National Treasury to the SAMRC. A major concern is that South Africa is currently the only country formally excluded from health research funding provided by the National Institutes of Health (NIH), as well as from participation in the United States Division of AIDS Research Networks (DAIDS) research networks. This exclusion could result in the loss of as much as $450 million in annual research funding.

The SAMRC is therefore engaging with the government to secure greater support for health science, which will be essential in mitigating the consequences of these funding losses. In parallel, the SAMRC is also engaging the European Union and the European Parliament to encourage stronger commitments toward supporting African and South African health research.

(ii) All the research conducted and funded by the SAMRC is aligned with national health priorities.

(iii) The SAMRC places strong emphasis on transformation and inclusivity across all aspects of its work. Its approach focuses on strengthening organisational culture to promote inclusivity, advance demographic transformation, and incorporate environmental, social, ethical, governance, and digital transformation considerations into its operations and research activities. The SAMRC views transformation broadly, extending beyond workforce diversity to include the science it funds, the institutions it supports, the innovations it leads, and its approach to research capacity development. To achieve meaningful and sustainable change, the organisation has adopted a systematic, data-driven strategy rather than relying on isolated or superficial training initiatives. This has included stakeholder listening engagements, comprehensive baseline assessments, executive-level commitment, alignment of diversity, equity, and inclusion (DEI) objectives with organisational strategy, and the implementation of transparent accountability measures.

The SAMRC also promotes inclusive development through unbiased recruitment practices, training and educational programmes, and employee resource groups that foster an inclusive workplace culture.

Research capacity development remains a central priority within the South African research ecosystem and is largely driven through the SAMRC’s dedicated Research Capacity Development Unit, which oversees scholarship and career development award programmes. In addition, SAMRC grants, internal research units, and research platforms contribute to capacity building by supporting and training postgraduate students as well as early- and mid-career researchers.

b. All critical research programmes within the SAMRC receive baseline funding support from the government. However, these programmes also require additional grant funding to effectively fulfil their mandates and sustain their research activities.

In addition, the funding shocks experienced over the past year have accelerated policy discussions around domestic resource mobilisation, African-led health research, local pharmaceutical manufacturing, vaccine and diagnostic production, and sustainable financing models for health systems. Leaders in South Africa have increasingly viewed the crisis as evidence that African health systems cannot remain structurally dependent on foreign aid that is vulnerable to geopolitical shifts. This perspective aligns with broader continental discussions on health sovereignty and the need for resilient public health financing systems.

The funding reductions are also expected to have long-term implications for South Africa’s health policy trajectory. A key lesson emerging from the country’s response is that global health security cannot depend primarily on external donor structures. Instead, sustainable resilience requires nationally driven financing, strengthened scientific capacity, local manufacturing capability, and enhanced regional cooperation.

END.

Reply:

The Honourable Member is referred to the response to Question 3401, which is similar to this question.

END.

Reply:

1. Deputy Minister Mmapaseka Steve Letsike commenced her second five-year term of Office as a Member of the South African Pharmacy Council (SAPC) on 01 January 2024 before being appointed as a Member of Parliament and Deputy Minister. After she was appointed a Member of Parliament, there was no administrative or enabling statutory requirement for me to remove her. However, the matter has been brought to her attention to reconsider her membership in the SAPC. I believe that Parliament, as an oversight body, has a responsibility to take up the matter with her.
2. The Department of Health is governed by various legislative and governance frameworks, including the Constitution, the Public Service Act, the Public Finance Management Act, applicable codes of conduct, and departmental policies relating to ethics, disclosure of interests, and conflict-of-interest management. These measures promote accountability, transparency, and ethical conduct within the Department.

Public entities and Statutory health professional councils operate within their respective enabling legislation and other applicable legislative frameworks, and are required to implement governance mechanisms that include codes of conduct, declarations of interests, conflict-of-interest policies, governance charters, audit and risk management processes, and other internal controls designed to safeguard their independence and integrity.

In the case of the SAPC specifically, governance measures include a Council Charter, Code of Conduct for Council Members, annual and meeting-specific declarations of interest, a Conflict-of-Interest Policy, and collective decision-making processes. These measures are intended to prevent actual or perceived conflicts of interest and to protect the independence of the Council in the execution of its statutory mandate.

END.

Reply:

1. (a) The detailed, aggregated national animal usage statistics are not available because there is no database or information system to capture individual records. The AREC’s norms and standards assessment reports contains self-reported aggregated information that has not been audited for verification to be used for statistical reporting.

• The NHREC received annual aggregated compliance assessment reports from 17 to 21 registered Animal Research Ethics Committees (ARECs) per annum for the past five years which are used for internal regulatory oversight, assessments and quality improvement.
• The information is limited to NHREC-registered ARECs and excludes unregistered ARECs, and research undertaken outside formal AREC oversight structures in the Republic.

(b) (i) & (ii) Not applicable.

(c) (i) & (ii) Not applicable

2. The National Health Research Ethics Council (NHREC) does not currently have any formal plans, proposals, projects, agreements, memoranda of understanding, or similar arrangements relating to transparency measures or agreements with institutions using animals for scientific purposes because it falls outside its mandate in terms of the National Health Act (No. 61 of 2003).

The role of the National Health Research Ethics Council (NHREC) is to set minimum norms and standards for health research involving animals and ensure ethical treatment and use of animals in biomedical research.

This legislation regulates animal ethics through the Animal Research Ethics Committees (ARECs): It requires any organization, university, or independent facility using animals for health research to register an AREC with the NHREC. The ARECs must review and approve all proposed animal experiments.

(a), (b), and (c) Not applicable

END.

Reply:

a. The Traditional Health Practitioners Act, 2004 (Act No. 35 of 2004) was assented to by the President on 11 February 2005. The initial provisions of the Act, establishing the Interim Traditional Health Practitioners Council, were proclaimed and came into operation on 13 January 2006. The 2004 Act was subsequently challenged and declared constitutionally invalid by the Constitutional Court. The order of invalidity was suspended to enable Parliament to remedy the procedural defect. Parliament thereafter enacted the Traditional Health Practitioners Act, 2007 (Act No. 22 of 2007), which repealed and replaced the 2004 Act.

The current Interim Traditional Health Practitioners Council is therefore established in terms of the Traditional Health Practitioners Act No. 22 of 2007. It should be noted that the sections of the 2007 Act were proclaimed on three occasions, with section 4, which established the interim Traditional Health Practitioners Council, promulgated on 01 May 2014.

b. The term of the current Interim Traditional Health Practitioners Council ends on 12 April 2028. The process of drafting an amendment to the Traditional Health Practitioners Act No. 22 of 2007 is underway. One of the proposed amendments would be to do away with “Interim Traditional Health Practitioners Council” and substitute it with “Traditional Health Practitioners Council”. The amendment would have to go through the usual legislative process of public comment, Cabinet approval, Parliamentary approval, and then proclamation.

END.

Reply:

The data for Sexual Offences recorded from January 2019 to March 2026 in each public health facility is provided in the Excel Spreadsheet, covering the requested aspects:(a) facility, (b) province, (c) year and (e) total number of post-exposure prophylaxis treatments provided. The private sector does not report data on sexual offences.

For question (d) which relates to types of offences, please note that the data elements on the DHIS reports on all sexual offences’ cases combined and does not segregate the data into the various types of sexual offences.

Furthermore, I would like to inform the honourable members that the element “New sexual offence case HIV negative issued with Post Exposure Prophylaxis" was not collected in 2019. The Department only started collecting data for this indicator in April 2020 as part of NIDS 2020.

END.

Reply:

a) The latest employment equity statistics by (i) race and (ii) occupational level are as follows:

Occupational Level	Female				Female Total	Male				Male Total	Grand Total
	African	Coloured	Indian	White		African	Coloured	Indian	White
Top Management	2	0	1	1	4	0	0	0	1	1	5
Senior Management	9	0	2	0	11	7	0	0	0	7	18
Professionally qualified and experienced specialists and mid-management	109	6	19	7	141	72	8	2	1	83	224
Skilled technical, and academically qualified workers, junior management	44	2	2	1	49	26	2	0	0	28	77
Semi-skilled and discretionary decision making	20	4	3	6	33	15	1	1	2	19	52
Unskilled and defined decision-making	15	0	0	0	15	2	0	0	0	2	17
Grand Total	193	12	27	15	253	118	11	3	4	140	393

b) The requested data is currently unavailable since SAHPRA has not been requesting this information. SAHPRA does plan to collect this information as outlined in the April 2025 communication (attached). During Q2 of the 2026/27 financial year, SAHPRA will commence the collection of data relating to the B-BBEE status of licence holders and proposed licence holders. SAHPRA would be able to provide information in this regard following data collection.

c) (i) No disciplinary actions have been taken against officials of the SAHPRA for failing to implement the Employment Equity Plan. SAHPRA complies with the provisions of the Employment Equity Act 55 of 1998, as amended, and has an approved five-year Employment Equity Plan that was formally signed and implemented in September 2025. The organisation has established governance, monitoring, and reporting mechanisms to support the implementation of the Employment Equity Plan and broader transformation objectives. SAHPRA further has an Employment Equity Committee that convenes quarterly to monitor progress, review employment equity statistics, assess implementation challenges, and provide oversight and recommendations on employment equity matters.

(ii) (aa) and (bb) No disciplinary accountability measures have been imposed on senior executives or the Board of the SAHPRA, as the approved Employment Equity Plan remains under ongoing implementation and monitoring.

END.

Reply:

1. No. The Department does not have commitments, plans, projects, proposals, memoranda of understanding or similar arrangements relating to the adoption and/or implementation of replacement methodologies or non-animal methodologies for scientific purposes; because if falls outside the mandate of the National Health Research Ethics Council (NHREC) in terms of the National Health Act (NHA), No 61 of 20023

The role of the National Health Research Ethics Council (NHREC) is to set minimum norms and standards for health research involving animals and provide oversight to ensure ethical treatment and use of animals in biomedical research. This legislation regulates animal ethics through the Animal Research Ethics Committees (ARECs). The NHA requires any organization, university, or independent facility using animals for health research to register an AREC with the NHREC. The ARECs must review and approve all proposed animal experiments. In terms of the national standards, institutional ARECs must enforce the South African National Standard (SANS 10386), which dictates the care and use of animals for scientific purposes in line with principles of replacement, reduction and refinement.

2. NHREC currently has no draft or final commitments, plans, projects, proposals, memoranda of understanding or similar instruments specifically aimed at establishing a national implementation programme for replacement methodologies beyond its existing ethics oversight role.

(3) (a) NHREC is not aware of a dedicated central statutory body established to coordinate the national development and implementation of alternatives to animal testing.

(b) NHREC does not administer a dedicated funding stream for the development of alternatives to animal use.

END.

Reply:

The Honourable Member is referred to the response to Question 3400, which is similar to this question.

END.

Reply:

1. There are currently no backlogs in the post-mortem services in all provinces. The provinces were able to clear the backlog that arose post the Forensic Pathology Officers’ tools down in May 2026.
2. There are currently no post-mortems awaiting completion. All post-mortems are completed within the stipulated time of up to four days.
3. All the provinces are currently not affected by backlogs in performing post-mortems.
4. Not applicable as currently there are no backlogs.
5. Generally, there are no backlogs. However, provinces have strategies in place to monitor and manage cases. Some of the strategies include:

• Daily monitoring of post-mortem turnaround times through the facility and provincial performance management systems
• Ongoing case review and allocation based on specialist availability, workload and geographical considerations
• Specialist oversight of complex and high-risk cases
• Integration of turnaround performance into Performance Management and Development System (PMDS) indicators
• Continuous engagement with SAPS, health facilities and other stakeholders to improve referral quality and compliance with statutory documentation requirements

END.

Reply:

(1) On 23 September 2024, the Deputy President and Leader of Government Business (Deputy President) addressed a letter to all Members of the Executive, in terms of which he requested members to review their respective legislation with the view to repeal or amend old and irrelevant legislation within their Departments. Members of the Executive were accordingly requested to bring the repeal or amendments of old order legislation to Parliament as a matter of urgency.

(2) The Department approached the review process through three phases, to ensure the ease and effective implementation of the Deputy President’s directive. The first phase entails identifying certain Amendment Acts that amended principal Justice Acts. The Amendment Acts that were identified under this phase do not serve any useful purpose, and can be repealed without the need to consult with interested parties. The Repeal of Certain Pre-1994 Justice Laws Bill, 2026, has been prepared to give effect to the first phase of the project, and reflects a total number of 149 Justice Amendment Acts in the Schedule thereto. The bill was approved by Cabinet on 3 June 2026 and will be submitted to parliament.

(3) The second phase entails identifying the principal Justice Acts with substantive provisions which may be repealed without the need of having them replaced with new legislation. A draft Bill, titled the Second Repeal of Certain Pre-1994 Justice Laws Bill, 2026, aims to further repeal those pre-1994 Justice Acts that do not serve any useful purpose, which Acts, however, require necessary consultations with the relevant inter-governmental stakeholders before they are repealed. A memorandum is on its way to me, requesting my approval to consult with internal stakeholders on the Bill that lists the Justice Acts that are identified for repeal in this regard. A total number of 21 Justice Acts is listed in this Bill.

(4) The third phase entails conducting a comprehensive audit of all remaining pre-1994 Justice Acts, and determining whether they may be repealed or whether they should be repealed and re-enacted. The majority of the pre-1994 Justice Acts may have to be repealed and re-enacted. The third phase is an ongoing project within the Department, and is currently receiving attention. There are 10 individual projects that are currently running under the third phase that are for repeal and re-enactment, namely: the Insolvency Act, 1936 (Act No. 24 of 1936), Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944 (Act No. 32 of 1944), Riotous Assemblies Act, 1956 (Act No. 17 of 1956), Trespass Act, 1959 (Act No. 6 of 1959), Extradition Act, 1962 (Act No. 67 of 1962), Justices of the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963 (Act No. 16 of 1963), South African Law Commission Act, 1973 (Act No. 19 of 1973), Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977), Drugs and Drug Trafficking Act, 1992 (Act No. 140 of 1992) and Security Forces Board of Inquiry Act, 1993 (Act No. 95 of 1993). There are 64 Acts that will in due course be considered by the Department for possible repeal or repeal and re-enactment.

(5) The review project undertaken by the Department is aimed at reviewing all old order legislation as directed by the Deputy President in September 2024, and not only the Justice Acts that deny black persons the justice of being part of the economic fabric of the Republic as asked by Honourable Mthethwa, MP. In the end, the exercise involves ensuring that those pieces of legislation that are not aligned to the constitutional dispensation are repealed or repealed and replaced with new Acts of Parliament.

Reply:

(a) The costs incidental to the repairs and unblocking of the main municipal drain outside the premises of the court were incurred by the Sol Plaatjie Municipality. The costs for the overall cleaning of drains and affected areas inside the yard and court cells area was incurred by the Department of Public Works and Infrastructure through the utilisation of their term contractor. Therefore, no direct costs incurred by the Department of Justice & Constitutional Development for the reported drain blockage.

(b) At the time of the reported incident, the Department implemented a contingency plan to address the cases placed on the roll. This was done through arrangement and utilisation of the court room at the High Court to attend to all first appearances in custody and the use of the AVR for the postponement of cases.

Reply:

The Department of Home Affairs (DHA) is the authoritative source for identity verification through personal details and biometrics (fingerprints or photographs) linked to each citizen’s profile in the DHA database. The facial recognition biometric verification solution uses these personal details and biometric records to confirm identity.

The facial recognition biometric verification solution makes use of the details of the citizen (Personal details and Biometric/photo) to verify identity.

1. Challenges affecting older citizens

SASSA has identified that some older citizens still use the green barcoded ID. In such cases, their photographs are often not available in the DHA database, which means we cannot complete facial recognition biometric verification for those clients.

To address this challenge, the following interventions are in place for clients who still possess the green barcoded ID document:

1. Clients are assisted at SASSA offices through the fingerprint biometric verification system, which accommodates both green barcoded ID holders and Smart ID holders.
2. Clients are advised to obtain a Smart ID card so that their details, including their photograph, can be updated and registered with DHA to support future facial recognition verification when transacting with SASSA.

2. Clients without smartphones

The facial recognition verification system is designed to work on both low-end and high-end smartphones. However, for clients who do not have access to a smartphone, the following intervention has been put in place:

1. Clients are assisted at SASSA local offices through a staff-assisted portal or a self-service kiosk equipped with a camera to enable facial recognition biometric verification.

3. Clients without stable internet access

For clients who do not have stable internet access, the following interventions are available:

1. Clients are assisted at SASSA local offices through a staff-assisted portal or a self-service kiosk equipped with a camera to enable facial recognition biometric verification.
2. Clients may also use the free SASSA Wi-Fi available at local offices to access SASSA online systems, including the facial recognition biometric verification system, using their smartphones.

4. The primary purpose of biometric verification is to definitively confirm a client's identity by matching their unique biological traits (like facial features, fingerprints, or voice) against authoritative records. It prevents identity theft, ensures secure onboarding of clients, and helps organizations comply with strict anti-fraud and anti-money laundering (AML) regulations.

In carrying out its mandate to administer social grants and ensure that payments are made to the rightful beneficiaries, SASSA must verify clients’ identities thoroughly to prevent identity theft and safeguard public funds.

Verification through non-biometric mechanisms, such as an identity number and personal details, does not fully address the risk of identity theft because this information may be known to, or misused by, fraudsters.

To support the effective delivery of this mandate, biometric verification serves as a robust control measure by definitively confirming a client’s identity and reducing the risk of identity theft.

The interventions outlined in 1 to 3 above ensure that clients who lack the means to complete biometric verification receive the necessary assistance and facilities at SASSA offices to do so.

Reply:

(1)(a) The Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and the Chief Justice are still engaged in consultations regarding the creation, and distribution of the additional posts.

(1)(b) The appointment of permanent Judges is undertaken through the Judicial Service Commission (JSC), in line with constitutional prescripts. The implementation of the additional 50 judicial posts is progressing in a phased manner, taking into account, funding availability and JSC processes.

(2)(a) Government has made a significant financial commitment to strengthening judicial capacity and R310 million over the MTEF has been allocated for Judges’ remuneration. A further R48 million has been allocated for the implementation of the Land Court Act, including judicial and support capacity.

(2)(b) The primary driver of court backlogs remains capacity constraints, particularly in relation to available court time and administrative support.

The current interventions are designed to deliver measurable improvements, including:

• Increased case finalisation rates; and
• A progressive reduction in backlogs.

(2)(c) The Chief Justice, as the head of the judiciary as contemplated in section 165(6) of the Constitution, exercises responsibility over the establishment and monitoring of norms and standards for the exercise of the judicial functions of all courts.

The Judiciary accounts to related issues of this nature in the Annual Judiciary Report, therefore; the performance of judicial functions falls under the purview of the Judiciary and the Chief Justice.

It is advised that the request for information relating to the performance of judicial functions be directed to the Chief Justice.

Reply:

(1) (a) The Council’s dataset reflects registered pupillage/practical vocational training contracts and related pupil records. It does not constitute a complete record of all pupillage applications submitted to the General Council of the Bar of South Africa (“the GCBSA”), the Johannesburg Society of Advocates (“the JSA”), or any constituent Bar Council and nor does it contain internal scoring sheets, application-stage criteria, or interview assessment records used by those bodies.

(b) The available data covers the period of 2018 to 2026. The 2026 figures should also be treated as current only up to the date of extraction.

(c) Based on the available Council registration data, there were 592 registered pupil records for the period 2018 to 2026. The racial breakdown per year is as follows:

Year	Black	Coloured	Indian/Asian	White	Other	Total
2018	2	0	0	1	0	3
2019	14	4	4	9	0	31
2020	45	5	4	26	0	80
2021	65	8	1	12	0	86
2022	75	2	5	9	0	91
2023	91	9	6	8	0	114
2024	83	3	7	6	1	100
2025	44	8	6	6	0	64
2026	17	2	1	3	0	23
Total	436	41	34	80	1	592

(d) Based on the Council’s available registered pupillage or practical vocational training data for the period 2018 to 2026, the gender breakdown by race per year is as follows:

Year	Gender	Black	Coloured	Indian/Asian	White	Other	Total
2018	Female	1	0	0	0	0	1
	Male	1	0	0	1	0	2
Total		2	0	0	1	0	3
2019	Female	9	2	2	6	0	19
	Male	5	2	2	3	0	12
Total		14	4	4	9	0	31
2020	Female	25	3	3	19	0	41
	Male	20	2	1	16	0	39
Total		45	5	4	26	0	80
2021	Female	29	4	1	7	0	41
	Male	36	4	0	5	0	45
Total		65	8	1	12	0	86
2022	Female	41	1	3	7	0	52
	Male	33	1	2	2	0	38
Total		75	2	5	9	1	91
2023	Female	44	6	2	3	0	55
	Male	47	3	4	5	0	59
Total		91	9	6	8	0	114
2024	Female	42	2	3	4	0	52
	Male	41	1	4	2	0	48
Total		83	3	7	6	0	100
2025	Female	20	5	2	5	0	32
	Male	24	3	4	1	0	32
Total		44	8	6	6	0	64
2026	Female	10	1	1	2	0	14
	Male	7	1	0	1	0	9
Total		17	2	1	3	0	23
TOTAL		436	41	34	80	1	592

Overall, the available data reflects approximately:

• Black pupils: 436, being approximately 73.6%;
• White pupils: 80, being approximately 13.5%;
• Coloured pupils: 41, being approximately 6.9%;
• Indian/Asian pupils: 34, being approximately 5.7%; and
• Other: Other: 1, being approximately 0.2%.

(2) Applications received and selection/scoring criteria

(a) The Council does not hold a complete record of the total number of pupillage applications received by each Bar Council, broken down by race and Bar Council. Applications for pupillage are ordinarily submitted to, screened by, and assessed by the relevant Bar, chambers, society, or training structure.

(b) The Council’s role is principally concerned with the statutory regulatory aspects of practical vocational training, admission, enrolment, registration of contracts where applicable, accreditation matters, and compliance with the Act, Regulations, Rules and Code of Conduct.

(c) The total number of applications received, broken down by race and Bar Council, would need to be obtained directly from the GCBSA and/or each constituent Bar Council.

(d) In relation to selection and/or scoring criteria, the Council has not prescribed a uniform scoring framework containing the criteria, weighting, interview scores, or assessment rubrics for pupillage selection by Bar Councils. Any selection criteria, including any weighting for transformation or historical disadvantage, would need to be confirmed by the relevant Bar Council or the GCBSA.

(e) The Council’s position is that any selection process must be lawful, rational, fair, transparent, and consistent with the Constitution, the Act and all applicable equality and non-discrimination principles. Lawful transformation measures may be permissible where properly structured, but fixed racial quotas, exclusionary practices, or arbitrary caps would require careful scrutiny and may be susceptible to legal challenge if not constitutionally and legally justified.

(3) Demographic targets, guidelines or benchmarks

The Council has not set, approved, or issued demographic targets, quotas, guidelines, or benchmarks for the racial composition of pupillage intakes by the GCBSA, JSA, or any constituent Bar Council.

(b) The Council recognises transformation of the legal profession as an important constitutional and statutory objective. However, any internal transformation targets, benchmarks, or guidelines adopted by the GCBSA or individual Bars would be matters falling within the knowledge and records of those bodies, unless formally submitted to, approved by, or reported to the Council.

(c) The LPC has not itself set such demographic targets for pupillage intakes. If any targets or benchmarks have been adopted by the GCBSA or individual Bars, the relevant details should be obtained from those bodies.

(4) Directives, reports or complaints regarding racial criteria in pupillage admissions

(a) The Council has not issued any directive requiring or authorising the use of racial quotas or fixed racial caps in pupillage admissions.

(b) The Council has not received any formal reports submitted by the GCBSA,

JSA, or any Bar Council concerning the use of racial criteria, transformation weighting or historical-disadvantage scoring in pupillage 

admissions;

(c) The Council does not have any data relating to complaints relating to the use of racial criteria in pupillage admissions and therefore cannot be used to confirm whether complaints have or have not been lodged with the Council in this regard.

(d) The reason the Council does not hold complete application and scoring data is that the Act and the current regulatory framework do not require Bar Councils to submit every pupillage application, applicant demographic profile, internal score sheet, or selection rubric to the Council as part of the ordinary pupillage selection process. The Council’s records are therefore more reliable for registered pupillage and practical vocational training outcomes than for application-stage data.

Reply:

(a)(i)(ii) As per the Acting Minister of Social Development’s commitment during the tabling of Budget Vote 19 in the National Assembly, the Department intends to submit the Draft Policy on Basic Income Support to the Cabinet for publication and consultations in the 2^nd quarter of the current financial year. Should Cabinet grant approval for publication of the draft policy, the Department will immediately gazette the policy still within the second quarter of the financial year, i.e. between July and September 2026 to solicit public comments.

(b) The MyMzansi platform is being considered as a potential platform to integrate income support with wider government services and economic opportunities. The exact shape and form of this role has not been concluded and is part of the policy content still being considered by the Cabinet.

(c) The costing model is classified while it is still under consideration as part of the internal Cabinet process, and the details therein cannot be shared at this stage. Once Cabinet has granted approval for the policy to be published for public consultation, these details will then be made available.

Reply:

(1) (a) The Council operates under the Legal Practice Act and related Rules, and the Code of Conduct which establishes a national regulatory framework for legal practitioners in South Africa.

(b) Vetting (Admission and enrolment controls)

The Council applies several mechanisms to ensure that only suitably qualified and ethical individuals are admitted to the profession, namely:

1. Judicial admission requirement

Prospective practitioners must apply to the High Court for admission. The court assesses whether the applicant is a “fit and proper” person, which is a foundational ethical threshold in legal regulation.

1. Council enrolment

Prospective legal practitioners must apply to the High Court for admission. The Court determines whether the applicant meets the “fit and proper” requirement, which is a fundamental ethical standard.

1. Standards and qualification

The Council sets and oversees minimum standards for legal education, vocational training, and professional examinations required for entry into the profession.

(c) Monitoring (Ongoing oversight and compliance)

The Council continuously monitors legal practitioners and law firms through the following measures:

i. Regulatory oversight mandate

The Council regulates both practising and non-practising legal practitioners, ensuring compliance with the LPA, Rules, and Code of Conduct.

ii. Complaints Mechanisms

Members of the public may lodge complaints with Council provincial offices. These complaints form the basis for investigations into alleged misconduct.

iii. Compliance Reporting

Law firms are required to submit annual audit reports to ensure compliance with financial and trust account obligations.

iv. Registers and transparency tools

The Council maintains lists of legal practitioners, law firms, struck‑off or suspended practitioners, which serve as public verification and accountability tools.

v. Fidelity Fund certificates

Practitioners handling trust funds must hold a valid Fidelity Fund Certificate, which serves as an additional safeguard for the public.

(d) Verification (Enforcement and disciplinary processes)

Verification of compliance is achieved through the Council’s disciplinary and enforcement framework:

(i) Disciplinary framework

The Act, Rules, and Code of Conduct establish a uniform disciplinary system applicable to all legal practitioners.

ii. Investigation and Adjudication

Complaints are investigated by Investigating Committees and, where appropriate, referred to Disciplinary Committees. These committees may impose fines or recommend suspension or striking-off, subject to Council’s approval. Applications are then brought before the relevant High Court.

iii. Internal Appeals

Both complainants and practitioners may lodge appeals against committee decisions.

iv. High Court

Parties retain the right to seek appropriate relief from the High Court.

(e) Possible and Ongoing Reforms

(i) Legislative Amendments

The Council has proposed several amendments to the Act, aimed at improving and streamlining disciplinary processes. These amendments are yet to be considered and gazetted.

ii. Expanded Powers of Investigating Committees

A recent amendment to the Rules allows Investigating Committees to impose fines in less serious matters without referring such matters to a full disciplinary hearing.

iii. Public Awareness Initiatives:

The Council conducts outreach and awareness campaigns to educate the public on its role. The public may also verify, via the Council’s website, whether a practitioner holds a valid Fidelity Fund Certificate or has been suspended or struck from the roll.

iv. Improved Case Management Systems

The Council is developing and implementing an enhanced IT system to digitise complaint-handling processes, improve tracking of cases, reduce delays, and strengthen transparency.

(f) The Council remains committed to strengthening its vetting, monitoring, and disciplinary processes to ensure that legal practitioners uphold the highest ethical and professional standards, while protecting the public from misconduct and fraudulent practices.

(2) The Department has prepared a draft Amendment Bill (“the Bill”) which seek to amend certain provisions of the Act.

 

Reply:

The Department of Water and Sanitation (DWS) performs regulatory functions in the management of water resources, primarily through the implementation of the National Water Act (NWA). Sections 19 and 20 of the NWA addresses the prevention of pollution and the remediation of its effects on water resources. In fulfilling this mandate, the Department has implemented enforcement actions against water users that are contributing to pollution in the Vaal River, with the aim of preventing further contamination and protecting the water resource. This includes administrative enforcement actions against municipalities discharging poorly treated or untreated wastewater, and industrial entities such as Eskom operations at Secunda and Camden.

The Department has pursued criminal and civil actions to non-compliant municipalities. The Msukaligwa, Lekwa, Govan Mbeki and Dipaleseng Local Municipalities in Mpumalanga were found to be discharging poor effluent from the Wastewater Treatment Works (WWTW), which is a contravention of the NWA, and were issued with court orders requiring them to rectify the identified non-compliances. The Department is monitoring the implementation of these court orders to ensure compliance.

Criminal investigations are also underway for Mafube, Maluti-a-Phofung, and Metsimaholo Local Municipalities in the Free State for their pollution of the Vaal River. DWS also initiated criminal proceedings against the City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality in relation to pollution originating from the Goudkoppies and Olifantsvlei WWTWs. A separate criminal complaint was opened against Mogale City Local Municipality concerning pollution emanating from the Flip Human WWTW, and the investigation is ongoing.

Furthermore, DWS has issued a notice of its intention to issue a directive in terms of Section 19 of the NWA to the City of Ekurhuleni Metropolitan Municipality for the discharge of poor effluent from Waterval WWTW into the Klip River, which is a tributary of the Vaal River.

---00O00---

Reply:

(a)&(b)

Financial Year	2024/25	2025/26	2026/27	TOTAL
Total	R 85,809.46	R 163,203.03	R 29,050.00	R 278,062.49
Accommodation	R 85,372.46	R 162,329.03	R 28,751.00	R 276,452.49
Service fee	R 437.00	R 874.00	R 299.00	R 1,610.00

END.

Reply:

1. Yes, the recruitment and appointment of the current Chief Director: Communications followed the processes prescribed in the applicable Regulatory Frameworks governing the appointment of the Senior Management Service (SMS) members in the public services.

1. The appointment was approved by the Acting Director-General on 12 May 2026 following the completion of the prescribed recruitment and selection processes.

1. The post was advertised and filled through a competitive recruitment process as prescribed by the Public Service Regulations. The appointment was made based on the outcome of the selection process and the suitability of the successful candidate. No alternative arrangements were considered as a substitute for filling the permanent funded vacant post.

2. Two officials who acted in the funded vacant post while the department was in the process of filling the post. The department utilised acting arrangements to ensure continuity of operations pending the filling of the vacant post. One of the two officials who acted in the post is permanently employed in the Department.

3. Yes, the officials who acted in the funded vacant post were eligible to apply for the post. Both officials who had acted in the post were shortlisted and interviewed as part of the recruitment and selection process. The successful candidate was appointed based on the outcome of the selection process and the recommendations of the selection committee.

4. The official who most recently acted in the post in question was seconded from the South African Social Security Agency (SASSA) KZN Provincial Office to act in the funded vacant post. The official was temporarily relocated to the National Department of Social Development.

(a) The total cost incurred for the accommodation is R 670 590.50 from September 2025 to May 2026. The department submitted all the claims for subsistence and travel allowances to the South African Social Security Agency (SASSA) KZN Provincial Office, and the reconciled report is not yet received.

b) Deputy Director-General: Corporate Support Services.

Reply:

1. The cases of Ms Oliphant and Ms Simmons were dealt with by the department, subsequently they were dismissed. Both employees declared a dispute of unfair dismissal with Public Health and Social Development Sectoral Bargaining Council, the arbitration process is currently underway.

Ms Oliphant was dismissed for contravening the Government Communication Policy and Ms. Simmons was dismissed for incompatibility as a result of the trust relationship between herself and the department.

(2) Ms Oliphant was afforded an opportunity to make representations on the allegations levelled against her, she failed to submit her representation, subsequently she was served with the letter of dismissal as the trust relationship between herself and the department has irretrievably broken down. There was a chairperson appointed to preside over her disciplinary hearing, before the case was finalised the department terminated her service, as a result no report was issued.

Ms Simmons was served with a letter of termination of service due to incompatibility whereby the relationship between herself and the department was irretrievable broken down and no report was issued.

Reply:

(a) The National Prosecuting Authority (NPA) or courts do not ‘track’ persons who are released on bail. On a case level, if an accused on bail or warning fails to appear, the court may issue a warrant of arrest (and provisionally forfeit such person’s bail to the State, which forfeiture becomes final after 14 days). The person is then subject to arrest, and the police are empowered to effect arrest in terms of this court-issued warrant of arrest (often called a bench warrant). If the person is not found, the bench warrant is often returned and converted into a J50 warrant. Warrants are ‘circulated’ – recorded on a system - and available to all police.

If the accused is subsequently arrested, they will immediately be linked to outstanding warrants of arrest and be able to be brought to court on the initial charge. The South African Police Service (SAPS) are responsible for arrests and tracing accused who have absconded. They have ‘tracing teams’ who specialise in such functions and would be best placed to confirm if this remains the current position.

(b) The Integrated Justice System (IJS) has already identified several data and system integration challenges relating to the processing and management of cases and persons, including South African citizens, documented foreign nationals and undocumented persons, across the criminal justice value chain.

To address these challenges, the IJS, in collaboration with the South African Police Service (SAPS) and the Department of Home Affairs (DHA), has implemented person identification and verification services that enable the verification of an individual's identity and status against DHA records at the point of arrest using one or multiple person biometric traits and during subsequent criminal justice processes.

In addition, the IJS and DHA have introduced the Unique Person ID (UPID), which provides a unique and persistent identifier for an individual across participating systems. The UPID is provisioned through the IJS/DHA identification services and is included in the relevant IJS person identification and verification services. The UPID supports the linking of person-related and case information across the criminal justice value chain and enhances the ability of participating departments to accurately identify, track and manage persons throughout judicial and related administrative processes.

Furthermore, the IJS Person Integration Services make provision for the verification of known foreign nationals, including asylum seekers and persons holding valid visas, permits or other recognised immigration statuses. While significant progress has been made in this regard, the integration of certain DHA backend immigration systems required to provide a more comprehensive verification capability is currently in progress.

In parallel, the IJS, in collaboration with CJS departments, has implemented Case Management Integrations comprising the Docket and Case Outcome integrations. These integrations provide key case outcomes and decisions for participating departments to consumption within their respective applications. This includes, amongst others, decisions relating to bail, postponements, convictions, acquittals and sentencing outcomes.

Priority is currently being given to the enhancement of these integrations as departmental systems continue to mature and evolve. These enhancements are aimed at improving the availability of trusted, accused and more recent victim-centric source and meta data at the lowest level of granularity, thereby enabling the effective management, tracking and tracing of persons and cases throughout the criminal justice process, while providing informed and actionable decision-making across the justice sector.

The IJS continues to work with justice sector stakeholders to strengthen interoperability between criminal justice systems and identity verification services to improve data quality, person identification, information sharing and the effective management of persons across the criminal justice ecosystem.

(c) Accused persons who are released on bail do not ‘effectively disappear’. At a case level, there is a court date, and if they fail to appear, a warrant for their arrest may be issued. The SAPS are empowered to trace and arrest the person based on this warrant.

Reply:

1. (a) The Department provides interpretation services in fulfilment of its constitutional obligation under section 35(3)(k) of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, which guarantees every accused person the right to be tried in a language that they understand or to have proceedings interpreted. In managing expenditure, the Department monitors demand for interpretation services, interpreter availability and expenditure trends across courts to ensure efficient utilisation of resources. External interpreters are engaged only where internal capacity is not available, to ensure continued constitutional compliance.

(b) The Department has reduced its reliance on outsourced interpretation services through the appointment of 42 permanently employed South African interpreters who are proficient in foreign languages commonly required in court proceedings, including Shona, Maputo Shangaan, Chichewa, Oshiwambo, Hindi, Portuguese and Swahili. In addition, the Department utilises audio-virtual interpretation services, optimises the scheduling of matters requiring interpretation, and strategically deploys interpreters to courts where they are most needed.

The Department is also in the process of creating an additional 30 permanent interpreter posts to strengthen internal capacity in foreign languages and further reduce reliance on external service providers.

(2) Investigations and cost-efficiency reviews were done, and it has been discovered that the R76 million expenditure is largely incurred as a result of traveling costs as well as the daily/hourly tariff paid to foreign language interpreters. Some of the interpreters charge special rates for scarce languages and dialects. The procurement policy that’s is under review seeks to remove the special rates.

Reply:

(1) The cases concerning the mentioned employees are still underway at arbitration under the auspices of the Public Health and Social Development Sectoral Bargaining Council (PHSDSBC). Out of respect for this process, the Department does not wish to make any further comments until the matters are finalised.

(2) (a) In the Labour Court matter between Ms Simmons v Department of Social Development and Others, an amount of R31 395.00 was paid in legal

1. fees when the dismissal of the employee was referred on an urgent basis. Since the commencement of arbitration proceedings, no invoices have been submitted for processing in respect of legal fees in either of the employees’ cases. The department further incurred cost orders from the PHSDSBC in the amount of R15 220.28 due to postponements.
2. Yes. The Office of the State Attorney facilitated the appointment of Counsel and Adv Karabo Mvubu was subsequently appointed. The appointed counsel is handling both cases (Simmons and Oliphant) at the arbitration hearings.

(3) Refer to (b)

Reply:

1(i)(aa)

Postponed cases due to: court recording systems, missing records and/or information and communications technology breakdowns	2023/2024	2024/2025	2025/2026
	148 District Court:28 Regional Court 120	90 District Court: 27 Regional Court 63	151 District Court: 34 Regional Court 117

Breakdown per postponement reason

‘

	2023/2024
Postponement Reason	District Court	Regional Court	Grand Total
CCTV	10	70	80
DCRS Machine	9	4	13
Video Postponement System	2	6	8
Viewing Technology (Evidence)	6	40	46
Court Recording Clerk	1		1
Grand Total	28	120	148

		2024/25
Postponement Reason	District Court	Regional Court	Grand Total
CCTV	2	37	39
DCRS Machine	15	8	23
Video Postponement System	6	2	8
Viewing Technology (Evidence)	4	15	19
Court Recording Clerk		1	1
Grand Total	27	63	90

	2025/26
Postponement Reason	District Court	Regional Court	Grand Total
CCTV	14	68	82
DCRS Machine	9	43	52
Video Postponement System	10	2	12
Viewing Technology (Evidence)	1	4	5
Grand Total	34	117	151

1(i)(bb). Lower courts do not have record of civil cases during the past three financial years, that were either (aa) postponed, (bb) struck off the roll, and/or (cc) otherwise compromise, solely and directly attributable to failures of court recording systems, missing records, and/or information and communications technology (ICT) breakdowns.

(1)(b) No official has been held personally accountable for
such incidents.

(2) The department is not aware of instances in the lower Courts where accused persons have escaped prosecution and/or conviction as a direct result of missing court records, defective recordings, or ICT system failures.

Reply:

(1)(a) The figure of approximately was informed by a preliminary valuation carried out at the scene by members of the South African Police Service, where it was indicated that the street value of methaqualone (Abba) is R1 400 per gram.

(1)(b) The K9 Unit of the SAPS processed the scene and confirmed the value.

2. The BMA was informed that the value was based on the seized substance in its current form, prior being processed into a final product.

3. The correct name and value of the substance was identified by the SAPS K9 unit at the scene and from their experience they apportioned value to the substance intercepted, prior to laboratory analysis.

4. Unknown as the matter before court is the mandate of the DPCI.

END.

 

67 Koranna Avenue, Doringkloof Centurion PRETORIA

0157

Tel: (+27) 012 065 1147

Email: [email protected]

www.bma.gov.za

Reply:

(a)

(i)

Language	Country of Origin	Expenditure
Shona	Zimbabwe	R8 768 258.03
Chichewa	Malawi	R7 725 159.14
Amharic	Ethiopia	R7 024 590.75
Shangaan (Mozambique)	Mozambique	R6 811 509.60
Igbo	Nigeria	R6 014 268.27
Swahili/Kiswahili	DRC	R5 387 544.80
Portuguese	Mozambique/Angola	R3 697 576.68
Urdu	Pakistan	R3 655 225.77
Mandarin	China	R2 789 602.97
Bangla	Bangladesh	R2 631 590.33
Zim-Ndebele	Zimbabwe	R2 397 568.82
Arabic	Comoros/Morocco	R2 209 360.21
Oshiwambo/Herero/Ovambo	Namibia	R2 194 995.20
French	France/DRC	R1 884 679.94
Hindi	India	R1 687 428.20
Kirundi	Burundi	R1 420 832.29
Luganda	Uganda	R1 344 570.28
Somali	Somalia	R1 254 161.59
Spanish	Spain	R1 203 152.47
Chindau	Zimbabwe	R1197 003.40
Twi/Akan/Asante	Ghana	R1 118 797.15
Yoruba/Hausa	Nigeria	R871 480.05
Lingala	DRC	R863 865.67
Tumbuka	Malawi	R437 000.67
Hadiya/Tigrinya	Ethiopia	R419 643.66
Thai	Thailand	R399 000.01
Italian	Italy	R169 664.36
Gujarati	India	R163 690.62
Vietnamese	Vietnam	R147 000.00
Bemba	Malawi	R105 288.26
Nyanja	Malawi	R97 319.27
Kambata	Ethiopia	R74 826.53
Kinyarwanda	Rwanda	R7 203.63
Kikuyu	Kenya	R4 603.77
Total = R76 178 462.39

(ii) Expenditure by province:

Province	Amount
Eastern Cape	R4 619 531,79
Free State	R5 464 773,69
Gauteng	R20 933 317,99
KwaZulu-Natal	R15 005 761,98
Limpopo:	R3 538 985,79
Mpumalanga	R2 990 175,45
Northern Cape	R7 294 072,20
North West	R12 198 301,50
Western Cape	R4 133 542,00
Total	R76 178 462,39

(iii) Service type is foreign language interpreting services for the accused persons and state witnesses within courtrooms across the Republic of South Africa.

(b) Yes, the procurement process was followed in the procurement of the interpreters. The Department utilises an established central database from which interpreters are sourced.